Mock Test 8 for XAT: 95 Questions with Solutions & Analysis

Attempt the Mock Test 8 for XAT: 95 exam-level questions, detailed solutions and performance analysis. First questions free.

Paper breakdown

95 questions · 95 marks · 142.81 minutes. Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation (QA & DI): 28 · Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning (VALR): 26 · Decision Making (DM): 21 · General Knowledge (GK): 20

Free sample questions from Mock Test 8

Question 1 · Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation (QA & DI) · 2024 MCQ

A farmer has a triangular plot of land. One side of the plot, henceforth called the base, is 300 feet long and the other two sides are equal. The perpendicular distance, from the corner of the plot, where the two equal sides meet, to the base, is 200 feet. To counter the adverse effect of climate change, the farmer wants to dig a circular pond. He plans that half of the circular area will be inside the triangular plot and the other half will be outside, which he will purchase at the market rate from his neighbour. The diameter of the circular plot is entirely contained in the base and the circumference of the pond touches the two equal sides of the triangle from inside.
If the market rate per square feet of land is Rs. 1400, how much does the farmer must pay to buy the land from his neighbour for the pond?(Choose the closest option.)

A.
Rs. 3,16,80,000
B.
Rs. 4,25,60,000
C.
Rs. 6,33,60,000
D.
Rs. 7,42,80,000
E.
Rs. 2,98,20,000

Correct Answer:

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: This is an inscribed-circle-in-triangle problem, recognisable because a circle's diameter lies on the base and its arc touches the two equal sides. The trigger is "diameter on base" + "touches equal sides".

Step 1: Analyse the triangle geometry.

Base $B C = 300$ ft. Altitude from apex $A$ to base $= 200$ ft.

Since the triangle is isosceles, the altitude bisects the base. Let $M$ be the midpoint of $B C$ .

$B M = M C = 150$ ft.

In right $△ A M C$ : $A C = A M^{2} + M C^{2} = 20 0^{2} + 15 0^{2} = 40000 + 22500 = 62500 = 250$ ft.

Step 2: Locate the circle's centre.

The diameter lies on $B C$ , and the circle touches both equal sides $A B$ and $A C$ . By symmetry, the centre $O$ must be at the midpoint $M$ of $B C$ .

Step 3: Find the radius $r$ .

The circle touches side $A C$ at point $T$ , so $O T ⊥ A C$ and $O T = r$ .

Use the area of $△ A M C$ in two ways:

$Area = \frac{1}{2} \times A M \times M C = \frac{1}{2} \times 200 \times 150 = 15000 sq ft$

$Area = \frac{1}{2} \times A C \times O T = \frac{1}{2} \times 250 \times r$

Equating: $15000 = 125 r ⟹ r = 120$ ft.

Step 4: Determine which area the farmer buys.

The problem states "half of the circular area will be inside the triangular plot and the other half will be outside". Since the diameter lies on the base, the base splits the full circle into two semi-circles: one above (inside the triangle region) and one below (outside). The farmer buys the outside half.

Step 5: Calculate cost.

Area to buy $= \frac{1}{2} π r^{2} = \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{22}{7} \times 12 0^{2} = \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{22}{7} \times 14400$ .

$= \frac{11}{7} \times 14400 = \frac{158400}{7} \approx 22628.57 sq ft$

Cost $= 22628.57 \times 1400 = 31, 680, 000$ .

Answer: Rs. 3,16,80,000 (Option A).

Question 2 · Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation (QA & DI) · 2024 MCQ

A local restaurant has 16 vegetarian items and 9 non-vegetarian items in their menu. Some items contain gluten, while the rest are gluten-free.
One evening, Rohit and his friends went to the restaurant. They planned to choose two different vegetarian items and three different non-vegetarian items from the entire menu. Later, Bela and her friends also went to the same restaurant: they planned to choose two different vegetarian items and one non-vegetarian item only from the gluten-free options. The number of item combinations that Rohit and his friends could choose from, given their plan, was 12 times the number of item combinations that Bela and her friends could choose from, given their plan.
How many menu items contain gluten?

A.
1
B.
2
C.
3
D.
4
E.
5

Correct Answer:

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: independent selections from two categories (veg and non-veg) using combinations, then an equation linking two people's counts.

Step 1: Rohit chooses from the entire menu. Ways = $(2 16) \times (3 9) = 120 \times 84 = 10080$ .

Step 2: Let $g_{v}$ = gluten-free veg items, $g_{n}$ = gluten-free non-veg items. Bela's ways = $(2 g _{v}) \times (1 g _{n})$ .

Step 3: Equation $10080 = 12 \times (2 g _{v}) \times g_{n}$ , so $(2 g _{v}) \times g_{n} = 840$ , i.e. $g_{n} \cdot g_{v} (g_{v} - 1) = 1680$ .

Step 4: Try $g_{n} \in {1, \dots, 9}$ . Only $g_{n} = 8$ gives integer $g_{v}$ : $g_{v} (g_{v} - 1) = 210 \Rightarrow g_{v} = 15$ .

Step 5: Gluten veg = $16 - 15 = 1$ . Gluten non-veg = $9 - 8 = 1$ . Total gluten = $1 + 1 = 2$ .

Answer: 2 (option B).

Question 3 · Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation (QA & DI) MCQ

A sunburst chart displays 1000 employees across 2 Regions (X and Y). The arc angle for X is $14 4^{\circ}$ , and for Y is $21 6^{\circ}$ .

Region X has 4 departments with equal arc angles ( $3 6^{\circ}$ each).
Region Y has 3 departments with arc angles $10 8^{\circ}$ , $7 2^{\circ}$ , and $3 6^{\circ}$ .

How many departments in the entire chart have EXACTLY 100 employees?

A.
3
B.
4
C.
5
D.
6

Correct Answer:

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: This is an extracting data step-by-step question, recognizable because it requires calculating the absolute counts for multiple hierarchical slices with varying angles and counting how many meet a specific threshold.

Step 1: Calculate the total employees in each region.

X total = $1000 \times (144/360) = 400$ .

Y total = $1000 \times (216/360) = 600$ .

Step 2: Calculate the employee count for each department in Region X.

Since X has 4 equal departments of $3 6^{\circ}$ each, each department has $400/4 = 100$ employees.

This gives us 4 departments with exactly 100 employees.

Step 3: Calculate the employee count for each department in Region Y.

Y1 ( $10 8^{\circ}$ ) = $600 \times (108/216) = 300$ .

Y2 ( $7 2^{\circ}$ ) = $600 \times (72/216) = 200$ .

Y3 ( $3 6^{\circ}$ ) = $600 \times (36/216) = 100$ .

This gives us 1 more department (Y3) with exactly 100 employees.

Step 4: Count the total number of departments with exactly 100 employees.

Total = 4 (from X) + 1 (from Y) = 5.

Answer: 5

Question 4 · Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning (VALR) · 2024 MCQ

Read the following statements and answer the question that follows.
A. Back then, they were owned by companies and installed on their premises.
B. Rooms and servers began to replace computer mainframes in the 1990’s.
C. These were supplemented by processors from Intel, which by the mid-2000s translated its dominance of PC semiconductors into a near monopoly of the server market.
D. They mostly ran on chips made by IBM and HP, the big tech of the day.
E. Things started to change once again around a decade ago, when Amazon began selling some of its spare server capacity.
Which of the following combinations is the MOST logically ordered

A.
A, B, C, D, E
B.
E, A, D, C, B
C.
B, A, D, C, E
D.
E, D, C, B, A
E.
B, E, C, D, A

Correct Answer:

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: This is a chronological and pronoun-driven sequencing question, common in business or technology narratives.

Step 1: Identify the opening sentence. Sentence B introduces the subject ("Rooms and servers") and a specific time frame ("in the 1990’s").

Step 2: Find the pronoun and time reference. Sentence A begins with "Back then", which directly refers to "the 1990’s" in B. The pronoun "they" refers to "Rooms and servers". This forms a mandatory pair: B -> A.

Step 3: Sentence D continues the description of these servers: "They mostly ran on chips made by IBM and HP, the big tech of the day." This naturally follows A, elaborating on the 1990s context.

Step 4: Sentence C introduces a subsequent development: "These were supplemented by processors from Intel, which by the mid-2000s...". "These" refers to the chips from IBM and HP, and "mid-2000s" chronologically follows the 1990s. Pair: D -> C.

Step 5: Sentence E concludes with a later shift: "Things started to change once again around a decade ago [from the mid-2000s]...".

Sequence: B -> A -> D -> C -> E.

Answer: C

Question 5 · Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning (VALR) MCQ

Consider the following five sentences. How many mandatory, unbreakable two-sentence micro-chains (where Sentence X must immediately follow Sentence Y based strictly on explicit pronoun or demonstrative resolution) can be definitively established?

The discovery of the Higgs boson confirmed a fundamental mechanism of the universe.
This elusive particle had been theorized decades earlier by Peter Higgs and others.
Such theoretical predictions are the bedrock of modern particle physics.
Nevertheless, empirical validation remains the ultimate arbiter of scientific truth.
These rigorous standards ensure that physics remains grounded in observable reality.

A.
1
B.
2
C.
3
D.
4

Correct Answer:

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: This is a count_how_many question testing the Anchor & Trace Technique, specifically your ability to isolate strict grammatical dependencies before building a full sequence.

Step 1: Analyze Sentences 1 and 2. Sentence 2 begins with "This elusive particle", which directly and exclusively refers to "the Higgs boson" in Sentence 1. This forms Micro-chain 1: (1 -> 2).

Step 2: Analyze Sentences 2 and 3. Sentence 3 begins with "Such theoretical predictions", which directly refers to "theorized decades earlier" in Sentence 2. This forms Micro-chain 2: (2 -> 3).

Step 3: Analyze Sentences 4 and 5. Sentence 5 begins with "These rigorous standards", which directly refers to "empirical validation remains the ultimate arbiter" in Sentence 4. This forms Micro-chain 3: (4 -> 5).

Step 4: Check for other explicit links. Sentence 3 to 4 is linked by thematic contrast ("Nevertheless"), but this is a logical transition, not a strict, explicit pronoun/demonstrative resolution.

Step 5: Count the definitive micro-chains. We have (1->2), (2->3), and (4->5). Total = 3.

Answer: C (3)

Question 6 · Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning (VALR) MCQ

Critics who lament the _________ of modern youth often fail to recognize that every preceding generation has similarly _________ the innovations of its successors, mistaking a shift in cultural _________ for a decline in moral character.

A.
apathy, championed, norms
B.
decadence, demonized, paradigms
C.
vitality, ignored, values
D.
resilience, celebrated, mores
E.
frivolity, adopted, practices

Correct Answer:

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: This is a generational dynamics and logical progression question, recognisable by its focus on historical patterns of intergenerational criticism.

Step 1: Analyze the first blank. The critics "lament" this trait, so it must be a negative perception of youth. "Decadence" and "frivolity" fit. "Apathy" is possible but less aligned with "innovations". "Vitality" and "resilience" are positive, contradicting "lament".

Step 2: Analyze the second blank. The sentence states that older generations do this to the "innovations of its successors". Historically, older generations criticize or fear new innovations. "Demonized" fits perfectly. "Championed", "celebrated", and "adopted" contradict the critical tone of "lament" and "mistaking".

Step 3: Analyze the third blank. The shift is in cultural something, which is mistaken for moral decline. "Paradigms" (fundamental frameworks) fits the academic tone perfectly.

Step 4: Verify Option B. "Decadence" (perceived moral decline), "demonized" (harshly criticized), and "paradigms" (cultural frameworks) form a logically airtight chain explaining the historical pattern of generational friction.

Answer: B

Question 7 · Decision Making (DM) · 2023 MCQ

Common Description: Arti, CEO of an FMCG company, was under pressure from the Board of Governors(BoG) to increase diversity in the workforce. The board wanted the company to hire candidates with vision impairment*, as it believed that they contributed to organizations in many unique ways.
The CEO was apprehensive of hiring visually impaired candidates; she was not sure about the feasibility of accommodating them in the current setting. Moreover, Arti was unsure as to how the visually impaired could contribute meaningfully to the organization.(* A person, with a vision impairment in a range of 60-100 percent, is referred to as a visually impaired person. A person with 100 percent vision impairment cannot see at all.) The following arguments were presented to Arti about the candidates with vision impairment:
1.Visually impaired can do some activities better than the normal people and hence complement other employees.
2.Visually impaired can motivate other employees to work harder.
3. Visually impaired can act as a role model for other disadvantaged people in the society
4. Visually impaired can work harder to prove themselves
5. Hiring visually impaired people may enhance organizational reputation which may consequently lead to better sales.
6. Visually impaired have to be paid 20 percent extra salary.
From the above arguments, which of the following options indicate that CEO’s apprehensions are misplaced?

A.
1,2,3,4,5 Only
B.
1,2,3,4,5&6
C.
1,2,3,4 Only
D.
1,2,4,6 Only
E.
1,2,4,5 Only

Correct Answer:

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: This is a counter-argument identification question, recognizable because it asks which points invalidate the decision-maker's stated concerns (i.e., show her apprehensions are "misplaced").

Step 1: Identify the CEO's specific apprehensions: (a) feasibility of accommodation, and (b) ability to contribute meaningfully.

Step 2: Evaluate each argument to see if it directly addresses and invalidates these concerns.

Step 3: Argument 1 (better at some activities) directly invalidates concern (b) by showing unique value.

Step 4: Argument 2 (motivate others) invalidates concern (b) by showing positive cultural impact.

Step 5: Argument 3 (role models) invalidates concern (b) by showing societal/brand value.

Step 6: Argument 4 (work harder) invalidates concern (b) by showing dedication.

Step 7: Argument 5 (enhance reputation/sales) invalidates concern (b) and partially (a) by showing clear business ROI.

Step 8: Argument 6 (20% extra salary) actually supports the concern about feasibility and cost, rather than invalidating it. It is a disadvantage, not a counter-argument.

Step 9: Conclude that 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 are the arguments that show her apprehensions are misplaced.

Answer: A

Question 8 · Decision Making (DM) · 2023 MCQ

Common Description: Arti, CEO of an FMCG company, was under pressure from the Board of Governors(BoG) to increase diversity in the workforce. The board wanted the company to hire candidates with vision impairment*, as it believed that they contributed to organizations in many unique ways.
The CEO was apprehensive of hiring visually impaired candidates; she was not sure about the feasibility of accommodating them in the current setting. Moreover, Arti was unsure as to how the visually impaired could contribute meaningfully to the organization.(* A person, with a vision impairment in a range of 60-100 percent, is referred to as a visually impaired person. A person with 100 percent vision impairment cannot see at all.) Arti wanted to follow the suggestion given by the Board of Governors; however, she was not sure if the company was ready to accommodate candidates with 100 percent visual impairment. Also, the concern of involving such employees in meaningful activities was constantly bothering her. Hence, she constituted a committee to come up with recommendations that would help the company in hiring 100 percent visually impaired employees After two months of deliberations, the committee came up with the following recommendations:
1. Hire visually impaired employees unconditionally as it is any company’s social responsibility
2. Hire visually impaired employees in the activities they can contribute
3. Ensure visually impaired friendly o ce space, food courts, restrooms, parking etc.
4. Allow guide dogs to assist employees with 100 percent vision impairment in the o ce premises
Which of the following options will BEST allay concerns as well as be fair to all stakeholders?

A.
3& 4 Only
B.
2, 3& 4 Only
C.
1, 3& 4 Only
D.
1& 3 Only
E.
1, 2& 3 Only

Correct Answer:

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: This is a feasibility vs. intent balancing question, recognizable because the CEO has valid operational concerns about hiring a specific diverse group.

Step 1: Analyze the CEO's concerns. She worries about (a) feasibility of accommodation and (b) meaningful contribution of 100% visually impaired employees.

Step 2: Evaluate Recommendation 1. "Hire unconditionally" ignores the CEO's valid operational concerns and may lead to tokenism or failure, making it unfair to the company and the employees.

Step 3: Evaluate Recommendation 2. "Hire in activities they can contribute" directly addresses the concern about meaningful contribution, ensuring merit-based inclusion.

Step 4: Evaluate Recommendation 3. "Ensure friendly office space" directly addresses the feasibility and accommodation concern.

Step 5: Evaluate Recommendation 4. "Allow guide dogs" is a specific, necessary accommodation for 100% visually impaired employees, supporting their independence and feasibility of working.

Step 6: Combine the valid recommendations. Recommendations 2, 3, and 4 collectively address all concerns fairly and practically.

Answer: B

Question 9 · Decision Making (DM) · 2022 MCQ

Common Description:

Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow.

Comprehension: A2Z is a state-funded leading engineering college in the country, renowned for its teaching and placements.

Now, A2Z aspires to be a global leader in research as well. A2Z has, therefore, decided to push for better quality research from its newly recruited faculty members. In the past, a few faculty members were con rmed because of their exceptional teaching feedback even though their research output was below par. Currently, the Dean, in consultation with the academic council, has included the quality of research as a mandatory requirement along with teaching excellence for the con rmation of the newly recruited faculty members.(The academic council comprises of the senior faculty members from different departments.) Initially, newly recruited faculty members are put on probation for three years. Either they are con rmed or their probation is extended or their services are terminated, based on teaching and research contributions. Once con rmed, their job is secure along with other additional perquisites.

Aparna joined the social sciences department of A2Z two years back. She is amongst the many faculty members, recruited after the new norms for con rmation were introduced. She completed her doctorate from a reputed university in the USA, with a signi cant research contributions. However, after joining A2Z, Aparna got deeply involved in social outreach asCOVID-19 was spreading. Though her social outreach has given her immense satisfaction, she has nothing to show against research contributions; further, it has impacted her teaching effectiveness. Her con rmation is due in a year.

One year on, Aparna continues with her social work. Gradually, she gets closer to the end of her probation and she has not much to show against her teaching and research contributions. However, her social work has been widely appreciated by the local media. The Chief Minister of the state wants Aparna to take a larger role in social outreach and assist the government.

The Dean is afraid that not con rming Aparna might prompt her to leave the institution, sending a wrong signal to the outside world. However, he also wants to send a message to the newly joined faculty members that teaching and research contributions are essential for con rmation.

Which of the following actions by the Dean is the MOST sustainable given the circumstances?

A.
Con rm Aparna, but freeze her increments and promotions until her research contributions are as per the expected standards
B.
Offer Aparna a ve-year contractual position after which she has to leave irrespective of her contributions
C.
Declare that Aparna’s extraordinary achievement deserves to be treated exceptionally, and con rm her
D.
Extend Aparna’s probation by three years, and tell her that she would have to leave if her research and teaching do not improve in that period
E.
Offer to create a non-teaching position of outreach o cer for Aparna, but terminate her from the teaching position

Correct Answer:

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: This is a "sustainable institutional transition" decision-making question. We must balance enforcing new rules with fairness to an individual who contributed to a noble cause.

Step 1: Identify the core conflict. The institution shifted to requiring research for confirmation. Aparna has no research and impacted teaching due to social outreach, but her work is widely appreciated by the media and the Chief Minister.

Step 2: Identify the Dean's dual goals. He wants to avoid her leaving (which sends a wrong signal) BUT also must send a message to new recruits that teaching and research are essential.

Step 3: Evaluate the options for sustainability and fairness.

Step 4: Option D ("Extend Aparna’s probation by three years, and tell her that she would have to leave if her research and teaching do not improve") is the most sustainable. It gives her a clear, extended timeframe to meet the new institutional standards, acknowledges her potential, but firmly holds her accountable to the new rules, sending the right message to others.

Step 5: Check other options. Option A (confirm but freeze) sets a bad precedent by confirming someone who hasn't met the standards. Option C (extend by 2 years and increase requirements) is overly harsh. Option E (terminate teaching) wastes her academic potential. Option B (5-year contract) is arbitrary and doesn't address the improvement goal.

Answer: D

Question 10 · General Knowledge (GK) · 2023 MCQ

BTS(Bangtan Boys), the pop-music band, belongs to which country?

A.
South Korea
B.
USA
C.
India
D.
UK
E.
Australia

Correct Answer:

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: This is a current affairs/pop culture question regarding the origin of a global music phenomenon.

Step 1: Identify the band "BTS" (Bangtan Boys).

Step 2: Recall their origin. BTS is a South Korean boy band formed by Big Hit Entertainment.

Step 3: Verify the country. South Korea is the center of the "K-Pop" (Korean Pop) industry.

Step 4: Check options.

South Korea: Correct.
USA, UK, Australia: English-speaking Western countries, not the origin of K-Pop.
India: Has a large music industry but not the origin of BTS.

Therefore, BTS belongs to South Korea.

Answer: South Korea

Question 11 · General Knowledge (GK) · 2024 MCQ

Which of the following Indian states does the River Ganges not ow through?

A.
Uttarakhand
B.
Bihar
C.
Jharkhand
D.
Haryana
E.
Uttar Pradesh

Correct Answer:

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: This is an "Indian Geography" question testing the course of the River Ganges.

Step 1: Trace the path of the Ganges.

Origin: Gangotri Glacier, Uttarakhand.
Flows through: Uttarakhand, enters Uttar Pradesh.
Flows through: Uttar Pradesh, enters Bihar.
Flows through: Bihar, enters West Bengal.
Enters Bangladesh (as Padma).

Step 2: Check the options against the path.

Uttarakhand: Yes (Origin).
Bihar: Yes (Major flow).
Jharkhand: The Ganges itself does not flow through Jharkhand. However, its tributary (Damodar) does. But the main stem? Let's check Haryana.
Haryana: The Ganges does NOT flow through Haryana. The Yamuna flows through Haryana. The Ganges basin touches it, but the river itself does not.
Uttar Pradesh: Yes (Major flow).

Step 3: Compare Jharkhand and Haryana.

The Ganges main stream flows along the border of Jharkhand/Bihar in some stretches? No, it flows primarily in Bihar. However, Haryana is definitively in the Yamuna basin. The Ganges is far east of Haryana.
Wait, let's look closer. Does Ganges touch Jharkhand? No. Does it touch Haryana? No.
However, in standard Indian Geography questions, Haryana is the classic "Not flowing through" answer for Ganges, as it is a Yamuna state. Jharkhand is also not on the main Ganges course, but sometimes questions consider the basin. Let's look at the options again.
Options: Uttarakhand, Bihar, Jharkhand, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh.
Between Jharkhand and Haryana: Haryana is geographically further west. The Ganges is in the East. Haryana is the most obvious "Wrong" state. Jharkhand is also technically correct (Ganges doesn't flow through it), but Haryana is the standard distractor for Ganges questions because people confuse Yamuna and Ganges.
Actually, looking at maps: The Ganges flows through UK, UP, Bihar, WB. It does NOT flow through Jharkhand or Haryana.
Why are both options present? Let's re-read. "Which... does the River Ganges not flow through?"
If both are correct, is there a nuance?
Perhaps the question implies the "Ganga Basin"? No, it says "Flow through".
In many exams, Haryana is the intended answer because it is a major North Indian state often confused with the Ganga belt. Jharkhand is sometimes considered part of the greater Ganga ecosystem via tributaries, but Haryana is Yamuna.
Let's select Haryana as the primary intended answer for "Not flowing through" in standard GK contexts, as it is the most distinctively non-Ganga state among the options (being Yamuna-centric).

Answer: D

Question 12 · General Knowledge (GK) MCQ

Assertion (A): India has won significantly more gold medals in the Commonwealth Games than in the Olympic Games.

Reason (R): The Commonwealth Games features a sports profile heavily weighted towards disciplines like shooting, wrestling, and weightlifting, where India has historical strength, and the competition is restricted to Commonwealth nations.

Choose the correct option:

A.
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B.
Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
C.
A is true, but R is false
D.
A is false, but R is true
E.
Both A and R are false

Correct Answer:

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: This is an assertion_reason question testing knowledge of India's sporting history and the structural differences between major multi-sport events.

Step 1: Evaluate Assertion (A). India has won 10 gold medals in the entire history of the Olympic Games (as of 2024). In contrast, India has won over 60 gold medals in the Commonwealth Games. Therefore, Assertion (A) is TRUE.

Step 2: Evaluate Reason (R). The Commonwealth Games program traditionally includes sports like shooting, wrestling, weightlifting, and badminton, which are traditional strength areas for Indian athletes. Furthermore, the participant pool is limited to the Commonwealth nations, excluding sporting superpowers like the USA, China, and Russia. Therefore, Reason (R) is TRUE.

Step 3: Determine if R explains A. The specific sports profile favoring Indian strengths, combined with the absence of global superpowers, directly explains why India's gold medal tally is disproportionately higher in the Commonwealth Games compared to the Olympics. Therefore, R is the correct explanation of A.

Answer: A

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Mock Test 8 for XAT: 95 Questions with Solutions & Analysis

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