Mock Test 4 for XAT: 95 Questions with Solutions & Analysis

Attempt the Mock Test 4 for XAT: 95 exam-level questions, detailed solutions and performance analysis. First questions free.

Paper breakdown

95 questions · 95 marks · 136.23 minutes. Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation (QA & DI): 28 · Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning (VALR): 26 · Decision Making (DM): 21 · General Knowledge (GK): 20

Free sample questions from Mock Test 4

Question 1 · Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation (QA & DI) · 2026 MCQ

Common Description:

Light Chemicals is an industrial paint supplier with presence in three locations: Mumbai, Hyderabad and Bengaluru. The sunburst chart below shows the distribution of the number of employees of different departments of Light Chemicals. There are four departments: Finance, IT, HR and Sales. The employees are deployed in four ranks: junior, mid, senior and executive. The chart shows four levels: location, department, rank and gender(M: male, F: female). At every level, the number of employees at any location/department/rank/gender are proportional to the corresponding area of the region represented in the chart.

Due to some issues with the software, the data on junior female employees have gone missing. Notice that there are junior female employees in Mumbai HR, Sales and IT departments, Hyderabad HR department, and Bengaluru IT and Finance departments: the corresponding missing numbers are marked u, v, w, x, y and z in the diagram, respectively.

It is also known that:

a) Light Chemicals has a total of 210 junior employees.

b) Light Chemicals has a total of 146 employees in the IT department.

c) Light Chemicals has a total of 77 employees in the Hyderabad office.

d) In the Mumbai office, the number of junior female employees is 55.

Based on the given information and the sunburst chart, which of the following has the HIGHEST number of employees?

A.
IT department, all offices together
B.
Bengaluru office
C.
Sales department of Mumbai office
D.
Cannot be answered uniquely based on the given information
E.
Mid-level, all offices together

Correct Answer:

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: This is a hierarchical data aggregation question, recognizable because it asks for the maximum value across different levels of a sunburst chart.

Step 1: Use the given totals to set up equations. Total junior employees = 210. Summing all junior segments gives: 25 + w + 30 + v + u + 15 + 18 + z + 16 + y + x + 10 = 210, which simplifies to u + v + w + x + y + z = 96.

Step 2: Total IT employees = 146. Summing IT segments gives: 22 + 15 + 25 + w + 14 + 8 + 16 + y + 12 + 10 = 146, which simplifies to w + y = 24.

Step 3: Total Hyderabad employees = 77. Summing Hyderabad segments gives: 13 + 11 + 9 + 7 + x + 10 + 9 + 6 = 77, which gives x = 12.

Step 4: Mumbai junior female employees = 55. This means w + v + u = 55.

Step 5: Substitute x = 12 into the first equation: u + v + w + y + z = 84. Since w + y = 24, we can deduce relationships. More directly, from u + v + w = 55 and u + v + w + x + y + z = 96, we get x + y + z = 41. With x = 12, we get y + z = 29.

Step 6: Evaluate the options.

IT department total is explicitly given as 146.
Bengaluru office total = 22 + 20 + 18 + z + 16 + y + 12 + 10 + 8 + 6 = 112 + y + z. Since y + z = 29, Bengaluru total = 112 + 29 = 141. (Wait, let's re-add: 22+20+18+16+12+10+8+6 = 112. 112 + 29 = 141).
Mumbai Sales department = 30 + v + 12 + 10 = 52 + v. Since w + v + u = 55 and w, u > 0, v < 55. Thus, Mumbai Sales < 107.
Mid-level, all offices = 22 + 15 + 18 + 12 + 20 + 22 + 13 + 11 = 133.

Step 7: Compare the totals. IT department (146) is strictly greater than Bengaluru (141), Mumbai Sales (<107), and Mid-level (133).

Answer: IT department, all offices together.

Question 2 · Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation (QA & DI) NAT

In a class of 100 students, 70 study Math, 60 study Science, and 50 study English. If 20 students study all three subjects, what is the minimum possible number of students who study exactly two of the subjects?

Correct Answer:

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: this is an overlapping sets problem using the inclusion-exclusion principle and bounding. We need to find the minimum number of students studying exactly two subjects.

Step 1: Let $x$ be the number of students studying exactly two subjects. Let $y$ be the number of students studying none.

Step 2: The total number of students is 100. The sum of students in each subject is $70 + 60 + 50 = 180$ .

Step 3: Using the inclusion-exclusion principle for the union of three sets:

$N (A \cup B \cup C) = N (A) + N (B) + N (C) - x - 2 \times N (all three)$ .

$100 - y = 180 - x - 2 (20)$ .

$100 - y = 140 - x$ .

$x = 40 + y$ .

Step 4: To minimize $x$ , we must minimize $y$ . Since $y \geq 0$ , the minimum value of $y$ is 0.

Step 5: If $y = 0$ , then $x = 40$ . We must verify if this is achievable. If $x = 40$ and $y = 0$ , then the number of students studying exactly one subject is $100 - 40 - 20 = 40$ . The sum of individual subjects would be $40 + 2 (40) + 3 (20) = 40 + 80 + 60 = 180$ , which matches.

Answer: 40

Question 3 · Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation (QA & DI) MSQ

Which of the following statements about probability are ALWAYS true? I. If

P (A) = 0.5

and

P (B) = 0.5

, then

A

and

B

must be independent. II. If

P (A \cap B) = 0

, then

A

and

B

are mutually exclusive. III. If

P (A) + P (B) > 1

, then

A

and

B

cannot be mutually exclusive.

A.
Statement I only
B.
Statement II only
C.
Statement III only
D.
Statements II and III only

Correct Answer:

["C","D"]

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: This is a statement evaluation question, recognisable because we need to test each statement against probability axioms and definitions. The trap is assuming common misconceptions are always true.

Step 1: Analyze Statement I.

"If $P (A) = 0.5$ and $P (B) = 0.5$ , then $A$ and $B$ must be independent."

For independence: $P (A \cap B) = P (A) \times P (B) = 0.5 \times 0.5 = 0.25$

But $P (A \cap B)$ can be anything from $max (0, P (A) + P (B) - 1) = 0$ to $min (P (A), P (B)) = 0.5$ .

Counterexample: Let $A = B$ . Then $P (A \cap B) = 0.5 \neq = 0.25$ , so not independent.

Statement I is FALSE.

Step 2: Analyze Statement II.

"If $P (A \cap B) = 0$ , then $A$ and $B$ are mutually exclusive."

By definition, mutually exclusive means $A \cap B = \emptyset$ , which implies $P (A \cap B) = 0$ .

But the converse: $P (A \cap B) = 0$ doesn't necessarily mean $A \cap B = \emptyset$ in continuous probability (e.g., probability of a specific point is 0, but the point exists).

However, in discrete probability (which is the context here), $P (A \cap B) = 0$ does mean $A \cap B = \emptyset$ .

Actually, the standard definition is: $A$ and $B$ are mutually exclusive if they cannot occur simultaneously, i.e., $A \cap B = \emptyset$ .

$P (A \cap B) = 0$ means the intersection has probability 0, which in discrete cases means empty intersection.

Statement II is TRUE (in standard discrete probability context).

Step 3: Analyze Statement III.

"If $P (A) + P (B) > 1$ , then $A$ and $B$ cannot be mutually exclusive."

If $A$ and $B$ are mutually exclusive: $P (A \cup B) = P (A) + P (B)$

Since $P (A \cup B) \leq 1$ , we must have $P (A) + P (B) \leq 1$ .

Contrapositive: If $P (A) + P (B) > 1$ , then $A$ and $B$ are NOT mutually exclusive.

Statement III is TRUE.

Step 4: Conclusion.

Statements II and III are always true.

Common trap: Thinking equal probabilities imply independence (Statement I).

Answer: Statements II and III only

Question 4 · Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning (VALR) · 2022 MCQ

Common Description:

Read the passage carefully and answer the THREE questions that follow.

Comprehension: Stupidity is a very speci c cognitive failing. Crudely put, it occurs when you don’t have the right conceptual tools for the job. The result is an inability to make sense of what is happening and a resulting tendency to force phenomena into crude, distorting pigeonholes.

This is easiest to introduce with a tragic case. British high command during the First World War frequently understood trench warfare using concepts and strategies from the cavalry battles of their youth. As one of Field Marshal Douglas Haig’s subordinates later remarked, they thought of the trenches as ‘mobile operations at the halt’: i.e., as uid battle lines with the simple caveat that nothing in fact budged for years. Unsurprisingly, this did not serve them well in formulating a strategy: they were hampered, beyond the shortage of material resources, by a kind of ‘conceptual obsolescence’, a failure to update their cognitive tools to t the task in hand.

In at least some cases, intelligence actively abets stupidity by allowing pernicious rationalisation.

Stupidity will often arise in cases like this, when an outdated conceptual framework is forced into service, mangling the user’s grip on some new phenomenon. It is important to distinguish this from mere error. We make mistakes for all kinds of reasons. Stupidity is rather one speci c and stubborn cause of error. Historically, philosophers have worried a great deal about the irrationality of not taking the available means to achieve goals: Tom wants to get t, yet his running shoes are quietly gathering dust. The stock solution to Tom’s quandary is simple willpower. Stupidity is very different from this. It is rather a lack of the necessary means, a lack of the necessary intellectual equipment. Combatting it will typically require not brute willpower but the construction of a new way of seeing our self and our world. Such stupidity is perfectly compatible with intelligence: Haig was by any standard a smart man.

Which of the following statements BEST summarizes the author's view on stupidity?

A.
Comprehending a problem by applying our existing world view is stupidity
B.
The inability to avoid forcing our current views on a new situation is stupidity
C.
Pushing our extant solution to x an alien problem is stupidity
D.
The inability to comprehend what is happening around us is stupidity
E.
The novelty of the problem, in relation to our cognitive capacity, is the cause of stupidity

Correct Answer:

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: This is a main idea question testing the ability to summarize a specific philosophical definition provided in the text.

Step 1: Locate the author's definition of stupidity. The passage states: "Stupidity is a very specific cognitive failing... it occurs when you don’t have the right conceptual tools for the job. The result is an inability to make sense of what is happening and a resulting tendency to force phenomena into crude, distorting pigeonholes."

Step 2: Analyze the Haig example. The high command used outdated cavalry concepts for trench warfare, forcing a new phenomenon into an old, distorting framework.

Step 3: Evaluate Option A. "Comprehending a problem" is not stupidity; failing to comprehend due to wrong tools is.

Step 4: Evaluate Option B. "The inability to avoid forcing our current views on a new situation" perfectly mirrors "forcing phenomena into crude, distorting pigeonholes" and the Haig example.

Step 5: Evaluate Option C. "Pushing our extant solution" is close, but the passage emphasizes the failure to update "conceptual tools" or "views," not just a specific solution. Option B is a more precise summary of the cognitive failing.

Step 6: Evaluate Option D. The inability to comprehend is a result of stupidity, not the definition of the failing itself, which is the reliance on outdated tools.

Step 7: Evaluate Option E. The passage explicitly states stupidity is "perfectly compatible with intelligence," so it is not caused by a lack of cognitive capacity, but a lack of the right conceptual tools.

Answer: Option B.

Question 5 · Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning (VALR) · 2022 MCQ

Common Description:

Read the passage carefully and answer the THREE questions that follow.

Comprehension: What bullshit essentially misrepresents is neither the state of affairs to which it refers nor the beliefs of the speaker concerning that state of affairs. Those are what lies misrepresent, by virtue of being false. Since bullshit need not be false, it differs from lies in its misrepresentational intent. The bullshitter may not deceive us, or even intend to do so, either about the facts or about what he takes the facts to be. What he does necessarily attempt to deceive us about is his enterprise. His only indispensably distinctive characteristic is that in a certain way he misrepresents what he is up to. This is the crux of the distinction between him and the liar. Both he and the liar represent themselves falsely as endeavoring to communicate the truth. The success of each depends upon deceiving us about that. But the fact about himself that the liar hides is that he is attempting to lead us away from a correct apprehension of reality; we are not to know that he wants us to believe something he supposes to be false. The fact about himself that the bullshitter hides, on the other hand, is that the truth-values of his statements are of no central interest to him; what we are not to understand is that his intention is neither to report the truth nor to conceal it. This does not mean that his speech is anarchically impulsive, but that the motive guiding and controlling it is unconcerned with how the things about which he speaks truly are. It is impossible for someone to lie unless he thinks he knows the truth. Producing bullshit requires no such conviction. A person who lies is thereby responding to the truth, and he is to that extent respectful of it. When an honest man speaks, he says only what he believes to be true; and for the liar, it is correspondingly indispensable that he considers his statements to be false.

Why does the author say that the bullshitter’s intention “is neither to report the truth nor to conceal it?”

A.
Because bullshitters are not convinced about the truth
B.
Because bullshitters know the truth
C.
Because bullshitters do not like to deceive
D.
Because bullshitters do not nd the truth useful
E.
Because bullshitters are respectful to the truth

Correct Answer:

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: This is a detail/inference question testing the ability to explain a specific philosophical claim made by the author about the bullshitter's motive.

Step 1: Locate the claim in the passage. "The fact about himself that the bullshitter hides... is that the truth-values of his statements are of no central interest to him; what we are not to understand is that his intention is neither to report the truth nor to conceal it."

Step 2: Find the supporting reason. The passage immediately follows with: "Producing bullshit requires no such conviction [that one knows the truth]."

Step 3: Evaluate Option A. "Because bullshitters are not convinced about the truth." This aligns perfectly with "requires no such conviction" and "truth-values... are of no central interest."

Step 4: Evaluate Option B. The passage states the opposite: "It is impossible for someone to lie unless he thinks he knows the truth," implying the bullshitter does not need this knowledge or conviction.

Step 5: Evaluate Option C. The passage states the bullshitter "may not deceive us, or even intend to do so, either about the facts or about what he takes the facts to be," but they do deceive us about their enterprise. Saying they "do not like to deceive" is a mischaracterization of their indifference.

Step 6: Evaluate Option D. "Do not find the truth useful" is a pragmatic judgment not made by the author; the author says they are "unconcerned" with it, not that they have evaluated its utility.

Step 7: Evaluate Option E. The passage explicitly states the liar is respectful of the truth, not the bullshitter.

Answer: Option A.

Question 6 · Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning (VALR) · 2022 MCQ

Common Description:

Read the passage carefully and answer the THREE questions that follow.

When will a liar BEST turn into a bullshitter?

A.
When a liar stops responding to the truth
B.
When a liar stops worrying about the correct comprehension of reality
C.
When a liar focusses only on the outcome and not on telling lies
D.
When a liar lies to people about his intention
E.
When a liar stops misrepresenting the state of affairs

Correct Answer:

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: This is an inference/application question testing the ability to determine the threshold condition for transitioning from one philosophical category to another.

Step 1: Define the liar per the passage. The liar "is attempting to lead us away from a correct apprehension of reality" and "is thereby responding to the truth, and he is to that extent respectful of it."

Step 2: Define the bullshitter per the passage. The bullshitter's intention is "unconcerned with how the things about which he speaks truly are."

Step 3: Identify the transition point. For a liar to become a bullshitter, they must stop "responding to the truth" and stop caring about the "correct apprehension of reality."

Step 4: Evaluate Option A. "Stops responding to the truth" is close, but Option B is more precise and comprehensive based on the passage's wording.

Step 5: Evaluate Option B. "When a liar stops worrying about the correct comprehension of reality." This directly mirrors the passage's definition of the liar's goal ("lead us away from a correct apprehension of reality") and the bullshitter's indifference to it.

Step 6: Evaluate Option C. The passage does not discuss "focusing only on the outcome."

Step 7: Evaluate Option D. Lying to people about intention is part of the liar's existing behavior, not the transition to bullshit.

Step 8: Evaluate Option E. The bullshitter still misrepresents their enterprise, so they do not stop misrepresenting the state of affairs entirely; they just stop caring about the truth-value of it.

Answer: Option B.

Question 7 · Decision Making (DM) · 2026 MCQ

Common Description:

MultiKrack, one of the oldest FMCG companies in Eastern India, was run by the Malhotras, a traditional business family, for generations. The organization believed that key positions should be held only by family members and close friends.

But, as the organization grew in size, the top management decided to bring in fresh thinking and fill key positions from premier management institutions. The need for such a decision was also brought upon by changes in consumer preferences, which the top management felt could be best handled by recruiting premier talent from the younger generation(Gen Z).

MultiKrack drew the best talent, from premier management institutions, by offering highly attractive salaries.

The first batch of Gen Z management trainees joined MultiKrack. Anindita was one of the seven management trainees recruited. She reported to Uday, a senior manager, who directly reported to the top management.

A few months passed. Anindita was a valuable member of her team and the top management was impressed with her. However, the other management trainees left the organization. In their exit interviews, they shared the condescending behavior of senior management as the reason for their departure. Some even left MultiKrack to join organizations that paid lesser than what MultiKrack paid. The top management understood that the seniors belonged to a different generation; they found it difficult to appreciate the intergenerational differences. The top management felt it was high time to do something about the senior management’s behavior towards the juniors.

Which of the following actions, considered by the top management, will BEST enable change in the senior management's behavior?

A.
Keep management trainees in mostly independent roles to limit their interactions with senior management.
B.
Ask Gen Z to rate the senior management on their behavior every quarter.
C.
Hire more Gen Z and fast track them to senior management based on performance.
D.
Invest in diversity, equity and inclusion training, using mass exodus as a turning point for the organization to embrace.
E.
Issue a company-wide warning that any form of discrimination will result in disciplinary action.

Correct Answer:

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: This is an organizational change management question. The top management recognizes the problem (senior behavior causing attrition) and wants to change senior behavior. The key is to choose an intervention that is sustainable, educational, and culturally transformative rather than punitive or superficial.

Step 1: Analyze the goal. Change "senior management's behavior." The cause is identified as "difficulty appreciating intergenerational differences." This is a knowledge/mindset gap, not necessarily malicious intent.

Step 2: Evaluate Option A (Independent Roles). This avoids the problem rather than solving it. It prevents knowledge transfer and collaboration, defeating the purpose of hiring Gen Z for fresh thinking.

Step 3: Evaluate Option B (Quarterly Ratings). This creates a surveillance culture. Seniors may resent being rated by juniors, leading to covert retaliation or tokenism. It measures behavior but doesn't teach how to change it.

Step 4: Evaluate Option C (Hire More Gen Z/Fast Track). This is disruptive. Fast-tracking inexperienced employees to senior roles undermines meritocracy and experience. It may cause mass resignation of existing seniors, creating a vacuum. It doesn't fix the current seniors' behavior.

Step 5: Evaluate Option D (DEI Training). Diversity, Equity, and Inclusion (DEI) training is designed specifically to address unconscious bias and generational misunderstandings. Using the "mass exodus" as a catalyst provides a clear business case for change. It educates seniors on why their behavior is harmful and how to adapt. It is a constructive, systemic intervention.

Step 6: Evaluate Option E (Warning). Threats create compliance, not commitment. Seniors may hide their bias rather than overcome it. It damages morale and trust. It treats a mindset issue as a disciplinary one.

Conclusion: Option D is the best because it addresses the root cause (lack of understanding) through education and frames the change as a positive organizational evolution rather than a punishment.

Answer: D

Question 8 · Decision Making (DM) · 2025 MCQ

Common Description:

Mr. Zubin Mistry is the owner and the chief editor of the newspaper The Pluralist, renowned for its high reporting standards and outstanding writing quality. The Pluralist’s authentic reporting distinguishes it from other newspapers that sensationalize news. They are responsible employers, known to be highly supportive towards their employees. Its news editing team is led by Ms. Ramya Kattabomman, a respected veteran in the newspaper reporting industry, wellknown for her stringent adherence to the ethical standards of newspaper reporting.

Mr. Aditya Swaroop Verma, an award-winning senior journalist, has brought in an exposé into the activities of a mining company, operating in an ecologically vulnerable area. In his hardhitting reporting style, he has presented interviews with tens of people, delineating how the mining company has used illegal means to start mining in that area. These mining activities may lead to the destruction of the local ecological balance. However, Aditya Swaroop is unable to obtain an interview with the management of the mining company.

Aditya Swaroop’s investigative report article offers significant revelations about the alleged illegal activities of the mining company which were hardly covered in the media otherwise. Nevertheless, his sources have requested for complete anonymity.

Ramya is trying to decide whether to publish the article. While publishing the article may enhance the reputation of The Pluralist, there are possibilities of political and economic backlash for reporting on the powerful mining company. She has consulted the legal team of the newspaper, who have warned that the report, relying mostly on anonymous sources, is likely to be legally vulnerable. On the other hand, Aditya Swaroop is a senior journalist, well known and well respected for the quality of his investigative reporting.

The topic of the report is time sensitive: if the report is not published within the next 2-3 days, the mining company would get an important government project in the same area.

Which of the following reasons will BEST enable Ramya to publish the article?

A.
Ramya should publish the article because her legal team is mostly over cautious about any possibility of backlashes.
B.
Ramya should publish the article given the time-sensitive nature of the report.
C.
Ramya should publish the article because any investigation by Aditya Swaroop has enhanced the reputation of The Pluralist till date.
D.
Ramya should publish the article because a similar article was published on another mining company last week in another news daily.
E.
Ramya should publish the article because the same news can get published by a competitor known for breaking such news.

Correct Answer:

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: This is a publishing dilemma calculus question, recognisable because it asks for the BEST reason to publish a legally vulnerable but time-sensitive article.

Step 1: Identify the conflict. Public interest and time-sensitivity vs. legal vulnerability and reliance on anonymous sources.

Step 2: Evaluate the justifications provided in the options.

Option A (legal team is overcautious) is a dangerous trap. Overriding legal counsel on vulnerable reports is reckless management, not an ethical justification.
Option B (time-sensitive nature) is a contextual factor, but time-sensitivity alone does not justify bypassing ethical and legal safeguards.
Option D and E (competitors or other dailies doing it) are appeals to popularity or fear of missing out (FOMO). The Pluralist distinguishes itself by high standards, not by matching competitors' sensationalism.
Option C (Aditya's track record) provides a substantive, internal justification. His history of enhancing the newspaper's reputation through rigorous investigation adds credibility to the current report, giving Ramya a principled reason to trust the process despite the risks.

Answer: C

Question 9 · Decision Making (DM) · 2024 MCQ

Common Description: Ms. Vineeta Lama, a respected gure in the small town of Jampur, found herself stranded on the road, once again, when her old small hatchback car broke down. Finding herself alone on the deserted road with no one to help, Vineeta, in desperation called Shyam Saigal, the General Manager of Balaji Motors − the only dealership in Jampur that sells Diplomatico cars, the brand that Vineeta drives. Vineeta knew Shyam from her frequent visits for getting her hatchback car serviced. Surprisingly, he arrived within fteen minutes, accompanied by a mechanic from his dealership. Further, he arranged for the vehicle to be towed and kindly offered Vineeta a ride home. On the way back, he advised Vineeta to exchange her old car with a new Sports Utility Vehicle(SUV) on a good discount from his dealership. He assured her that he would add several additional services to ensure her SUV remained in excellent condition for many years ahead. Due to her old car’s frequent breakdowns, Vineeta decided it was a time to replace it. She was afraid whether buying a Diplomatico SUV from Balaji Motors, as suggested by Shyam, will be a right decision for her.
Which of the following pieces of additional information will help her the MOST in taking the right decision?

A.
She has no idea which SUV to choose, and she feels that all SUVs are the same.
B.
Her brother, an SUV enthusiast, staying in a metro city, has advised her to stay away from Diplomatico Cars.
C.
In Jampur, SUVs have a 6-month waiting period; however, one red-coloured Diplomatico SUV, not her favourite colour, is available at Balaji Motors.
D.
Jampur, being an old city with congested roads, has a parking problem in many areas.
E.
A new dealership of Panther Motors, the highest selling car brand in the country, is about to come to the town soon.

Correct Answer:

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: This is a monopoly-breaking information asymmetry question, recognizable because the consumer is in a small town with only one dealership and needs to make a high-stakes purchase decision.

Step 1: Identify the core dilemma. Vineeta is being pressured by the only local dealership (Balaji Motors) to buy an SUV. She lacks alternatives, giving the dealer high negotiating power.

Step 2: Evaluate what information shifts the power dynamic. The most valuable information would be the existence of a viable alternative or a change in the market structure.

Step 3: Analyze the options. Option E reveals that a new dealership of the highest-selling brand (Panther Motors) is coming soon. This breaks the local monopoly, giving Vineeta the power to wait, compare prices, and avoid being rushed into a potentially bad deal.

Step 4: Reject other options. Options A, B, C, and D provide subjective opinions, minor logistical details, or general town problems that do not fundamentally alter her negotiating position or provide a concrete alternative.

Answer: E

Question 10 · General Knowledge (GK) · 2022 MCQ

Monosodium glutamate is:

A.
The reason one cries while peeling onions
B.
The name of the company that makes Ajinomoto
C.
Found in tomatoes
D.
Not found in any fruit or vegetable
E.
A misnomer since it does not contain sodium

Correct Answer:

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: This is a factual science question testing knowledge of food chemistry, specifically the natural occurrence of Monosodium Glutamate (MSG).

Step 1: Analyze the chemical name. "Monosodium glutamate" indicates it is the sodium salt of glutamic acid.

Step 2: Evaluate Option A. The compound that causes tearing when peeling onions is syn-propanethial-S-oxide, not MSG.

Step 3: Evaluate Option B. Ajinomoto is a brand/company name that popularized MSG, but MSG itself is the chemical compound, not the company name.

Step 4: Evaluate Option C. Glutamic acid is a naturally occurring amino acid. It is found in high concentrations in tomatoes, cheese (especially Parmesan), mushrooms, and soy sauce. Therefore, MSG (or its precursor) is naturally found in tomatoes.

Step 5: Evaluate Option D. This is false, as established in Step 4.

Step 6: Evaluate Option E. This is false because "Monosodium" explicitly indicates the presence of sodium.

Therefore, MSG is found in tomatoes.

Answer: Found in tomatoes

Question 11 · General Knowledge (GK) MCQ

In the context of the "Triad of Economic Growth" framework, how many of the following pairs correctly match the economic pillar with its stated primary goal in the chapter?

Economic Policy: Decoding tax structures like GST to boost consumption and protect investors.
Infrastructure: Tracking how mega engineering projects eliminate the need for private logistics innovations.
Corporate Mergers: Decoding the business logic behind 100% stake acquisitions and cross-border media buys.

A.
Only one
B.
Only two
C.
All three
D.
None

Correct Answer:

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: This is a find_number question, recognisable because it requires counting the number of factually correct pairings based on a specific chapter framework.

Step 1: Evaluate Pair 1. The chapter explicitly defines the Economic Policy pillar as decoding tax structures (like GST) to boost consumption and protect investors. This is correct.

Step 2: Evaluate Pair 2. The Infrastructure pillar focuses on how mega projects and private cargo supply chains reduce logistics costs. It does not aim to eliminate the need for private logistics innovations; in fact, private innovation (like Amazon Air) is a key part of the pillar. This is incorrect.

Step 3: Evaluate Pair 3. The Corporate Mergers pillar is defined as decoding the business logic behind 100% stake acquisitions and cross-border media buys. This is correct.

Step 4: Count the correct pairs. Pairs 1 and 3 are correct. Total = 2.

Answer: Only two.

Question 12 · General Knowledge (GK) MCQ

The Chairperson of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is appointed by the President of India. However, this appointment is not made at the sole discretion of the President. Which of the following committees is statutorily mandated to recommend the name for this appointment?

A.
A committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Minister of Home Affairs, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
B.
A committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and the Chief Justice of India.
C.
A committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Minister of Finance, and the Attorney General of India.
D.
A committee consisting of the Chief Justice of India, the Minister of Home Affairs, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha.

Correct Answer:

Step-by-Step Solution

Key idea: This is a factual recall question regarding statutory appointment mechanisms, recognizable by the specific focus on the selection committee for a high-ranking anti-corruption official.

Step 1: Recall the statutory framework for the CVC. The Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003, governs the appointment of the CVC Chairperson.

Step 2: Identify the composition of the selection committee. Section 4(1) of the CVC Act mandates that the President shall appoint the CVC based on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister (as Chairperson), the Minister of Home Affairs, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.

Step 3: Evaluate the distractors. Option B describes the selection committee for the Director of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). Option C and D are fabricated combinations designed to test confusion between different high-level appointment committees.

Step 4: Select the option that matches the statutory mandate. Option A is the correct composition.

Answer: A committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Minister of Home Affairs, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.

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Mock Test 4 for XAT: 95 Questions with Solutions & Analysis

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